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By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 16, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: How is God Omnipresent?

ANSWER: Those who believe in a Trinity carelessly assume the Bible teaches that the two Personages known as the Father and the Son are omnipresent - "everywhere present at once." It is the Holy Spirit that is Omni Present - not the individual Persons known as Father and Son.

King David asked God, "Where can I go from Your Spirit? Or where can I flee from Your presence? If I ascend into heaven, You are there; If I make my bed in hell [Sheol - "the grave"] behold, You are there. If I take the wings of the morning, and dwell in the uttermost parts of the sea, even there Your hand shall lead me, and Your right hand shall hold me. If I say, 'Surely the darkness shall fall on me,' even the night shall be light about me; indeed, the darkness shall not hide from You, but the night shines as the day; the darkness and the light are both alike to You" (Psalm 139:7-12). This Scripture plainly reveals that God is everywhere - but only in and through His Spirit.

God explained it this way: "Am I a God near at hand,' says the LORD, 'And not a God afar off? Can anyone hide himself in secret places, so I shall not see him?' says the LORD; 'Do I not fill heaven and earth?' says the LORD" (Jeremiah 23:23-24). God the Father does not, in Person, "fill heaven and earth." Jesus Christ, the Son of God, does not, in Person, "fill heaven and earth." Both Father and Son are omnipresent only in and through Their Holy Spirit. God - in Spirit - does fill heaven and earth!

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 16, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: Does I John 5:7-8 prove the doctrine of the Trinity?

ANSWER: Some try to prove the doctrine of the Trinity by quoting I John 5:7-8 which states: "For there are three who bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one. And there are three that bear witness on earth: the Spirit, the water, and the blood; and these three are one."

The above emphasized words were added by editors of the Latin Vulgate translation in the early fourth century. They do not appear in any of the older Greek manuscripts nor in any of the older English translations. They were added to the Latin vulgate in the heat of a controversy between Rome and God's people. Bible commentaries explain that these words were never written in the apostle John's manuscript, or any existing copies of it. Because Trinitarians had no scriptural argument to stand on, some of them INJECTED SPURIOUS SCRIPTURE. They had no other way to biblically support their views!

There is a definite reason Satan, the archdeceiver, wanted that spurious verse added in the Latin Vulgate. The "trinity" doctrine completely does away with the Gospel of Jesus Christ. It limits the number of members of the God Family to only three - with no possibility of expansion. Jesus' Gospel is the message He brought to mankind from God the Father - the Good News of the coming Kingdom or Family of God. That is the one thing, above all, that Satan wants to hide from the eyes of man.

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 16, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: Is the doctrine of the Trinity found in the Bible?

ANSWER: The doctrine of the Trinity is not found in the Bible. Nowhere in the entire Bible, is the Holy Spirit ever spoken of as a "divine Person." Rather, "It" is the power, influence, nature, character, mind, and life of God.

Notice the following frank admissions by Trinitarians:

"The Old Testament clearly does not envisage God's Spirit as a Person.... God's Spirit is simply God's power. If it is sometimes represented as being distinct from God, it is because the breath [Hebrew - ruach - Spirit] acts exteriorly" (Isaiah 48:16; Isaiah 32:15; Isaiah 63:11) (New Catholic Encyclopedia).

"The majority of New Testament texts reveal God's Spirit as something, not someone; this is especially seen in the parallelism between the spirit and the power of God" (New Catholic Encyclopedia).

"When a quasi-personal activity is ascribed to God's Spirit, e.g., speaking, hindering, desiring, dwelling (Acts 8:29; Acts 16:7; Romans 8:9), one is not justified in concluding immediately that in these passages God's Spirit is regarded as a Person..." (New Catholic Encyclopedia).

The Catholic theologian Karl Rahner admits that, in the past, theologians have been "embarrassed by the simple fact that in reality the Scriptures do not explicitly present a doctrine of the 'immanent' Trinity..." (K. Rahner, The Trinity, p. 22).

Protestant works also confess that the Trinity doctrine is not found in the Bible. Note the following:

"Although not itself a biblical term, the Trinity has been found a convenient designation for the one God self-revealed in Scripture as Father, Son and Holy Spirit. It signifies that within the one essence of Godhead we have to distinguish three 'persons' who are neither three gods on the one side, nor three parts or modes of God on the other, but co-equally and co-eternally God" (Baker's Dictionary of Theology, 1979 ed., "Trinity").

"The word Trinity is not found in the Bible, and though used by Tertullian in the last decade of the second century, it did not find a place formally in the theology of the church till the fourth century" (The New Bible Dictionary, 2nd Ed., "Trinity").

The world's theologians admit that the Trinity is not even once mentioned in Scripture. A belief in the Trinity doctrine is based on human interpretation of certain biblical texts. The Trinity doctrine is an ungodly, unscriptural doctrine. Acceptance of this doctrine distorts and conceals the true nature of the Godhead.

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 16, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: Are God the Father and His Son one being? One entity?

ANSWER: Jesus said in John 10:30 "I and My Father are one."

Jesus here revealed that there is one Godhead, or one God Family, and that its members work together with one mind and purpose.

That Family is presently comprised of two Beings, God the Father and His Son, Jesus Christ. This is clearly stated in John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." The "Word" or "Spokesman" was the one who later became Jesus Christ (John 1:14).

Hebrews 1:1-4 also shows that Christ was, and now is, God. "God, who at various times and in different ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds; who being the brightness of His glory and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by the word of His power, when He had by Himself purged our sins, sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, having become so much better than the angels, as He has by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they." In verse 6 God says of Christ, "Let all the angels of God worship Him." Only a member of the God Family is worthy of worship.

But, the God Family is not limited to God the Father and Jesus Christ. Hebrews 2:7-8 shows that man, like Christ, was made for a while "a little lower than the angels," but that he is to be crowned "with glory and honor." Everything will be put "in subjection under his feet," "but now we do not yet see all things put under him," because the resurrection to immortality has not yet occurred.

The Family of God, then will eventually be expanded to include all who choose God's way. "Beloved, now we are children of God; and it has not yet been revealed what we shall be, but we know that when He is revealed, we shall be like Him, for we shall see Him as He is" (I John 3:2). The Apostle Paul adds, "For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality" (I Corinthians 15:53). This verse plainly states that resurrected Christians, like Christ, will be immortal. When we are changed our mortal bodies will become spirit bodies like His (Philippians 3:20-21; I Corinthians 15:43-54; Romans 8:18-19). The Father and the Son are one united, holy Family. At the resurrection we will be born into the one God Family and become one with God.

Christ and His Father were "one being," or "one entity." The following Scriptures should convince any rational person of the utter absurdity of this claim:
1) Jesus was begotten by His Father (Hebrews 1:5). Did He beget Himself?
2) When Jesus prayed to His Father (John 17:1-26), did He pray to Himself?
3) When Christ said His Father was greater than He was (John 14:28), did He mean that He was greater than Himself?
4) When Jesus cried out, "My God, My God, why have you forsaken Me?" (Matthew 27:46), did He imply that He had forsaken Himself?
5) When Christ ascended to heaven after His resurrection (John 20:17), did He ascend to Himself?
6) When the Father said to His Son that He was to sit at His right hand until His enemies became His footstool (Matthew 22:44) did this mean Jesus was to sit on His own right hand?
7) When Jesus answered His disciples' question about when He would return by saying, "Of that day and hour no one knows not even the angels of heaven, but My Father only" (Matthew 24:36), did Jesus mean that He Himself actually knew the day and hour but just made up an excuse to avoid telling them?

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 16, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: Who was Melchizedek?

ANSWER: Genesis 14 introduces an intriguing figure named Melchizedek. During the war between a number of ancient city states in Canaan and Mesopotamia, Abraham's nephew Lot and his family were captured and their goods carried off. One of their number escaped and brought the news to Abraham, who armed 318 of his servants and pursued them. Abraham and his men successfully rescued Lot and his family and returned them safely to the Canaanite cities. On the return trip Melchizedek met Abraham.

Here is the account: "Then Melchizedek king of Salem brought out bread and wine; he was the priest of God Most High. And he [Melchizedek] blessed him [Abram] and said: 'Blessed be Abram of God Most High, possessor of heaven and earth; and blessed be God Most High who has delivered your enemies into your hand.' And he [Abram] gave him [Melchizedek] a tithe of all." (Genesis 14:18-20).

Melchizedek was king of Salem and priest of God Most High (see above - Genesis 14:18). "Salem" comes from the Hebrew word meaning "peace." Melchizedek was the "King of Peace." The Hebrew name for Melchizedek itself means "King of Righteousness." This same individual is mentioned in Psalm 110:4. Speaking prophetically of Christ, David stated: "The LORD has sworn and will not relent, 'You are a priest forever according to the order of Melchizedek." This verse is quoted again in Hebrews 5:6, 10).

The Apostle Paul wrote this concerning Melchizedek: "For this Melchizedek, king of Salem, priest of the Most High God, who met Abraham returning from the slaughter of the kings and blessed him, to whom also Abraham gave a tenth part of all, first being translated "king of righteousness,' and then also king of Salem, meaning 'king of peace,' without father, without mother, without genealogy, having neither beginning of days nor end of life, but made like the Son of God, remains a priest continually" (Hebrews 7:1-3).

God names individuals what they are. This man is identified as the "king of righteousness." Righteousness is obedience to God's law. Such an expression applied to any, but God would be blasphemous because all humans have sinned (Romans 3:23). Romans 3:10 states: "As it is written: 'There is none righteous, no, not one.'" Melchizedek is also called the king of peace. Jesus is called the "prince of peace" (Isaiah 9:6-7). Men do not know the way to peace (Romans 3:17). Melchizedek was "without genealogy." He had no descent or pedigree from another, He was self-existent. Therefore He has always existed - from eternity! That is true only of God!

Who was this Melchizedek? He could not have been an angel, for angels were created by God; therefore, they have had a "beginning of days." All humans have both a "beginning of days" and an "end of life." God only is without a beginning. Therefore, Melchizedek has to be either the Father or the Son. Which One was He?"

The Scriptures reveal, "No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him" (John 1:18). Furthermore Christ said, "And the Father Himself, who sent Me, has testified of Me. You have neither heard His voice at any time, nor seen His form" (John 5:37). Since many thousands saw Christ and heard him on numerous occasions, the Scriptures which say that "No one has seen God at any time" can only refer to the Father. The Bible reveals that Abraham actually saw and spoke to Melchizedek. The ancient King of righteousness could be none other than the divine Spokesman who later became Jesus Christ!

Notice he was "Like the Son of God." He was not yet the Son of God until he was specially begotten of the Father in the womb of the virgin Mary.

In addition, Melchizedek "remains [abides] a priest continually [Moffatt translation states it: 'continues to be Priest permanently']." Melchizedek's continuing function as a priest would not make sense if the Father was being indicated. A priest is a mediator between man and God. Jesus Christ fulfills that role even now (I Timothy 2:5), and forever will! "Seeing then that we have a great High Priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our confession. For we do not have a High Priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but was in all points tempted as we are, yet without sin" (Hebrews 4:14-15). He is "called by God as High Priest 'according to the order of Melchizedek'" (Hebrews 5:10).

Some people have stumbled on the statement that Melchizedek has no "end of life." They contend that since Christ died, He had an end of life. If that were true, then Christ is still dead! But Christ is not dead. He is alive. It was not possible for Christ to be held by death (Acts 2:24). Melchizedek would never have fulfilled His office of High Priest if He had not died for the sins of the people and risen again. It is the function of the High Priest to lead the way to salvation. Jesus Christ is the "author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him" salvation (Hebrews 5:9). And, He is "the author and finisher of our faith" (Hebrews 12:2).

The conclusion is inescapable - Melchizedek and Jesus Christ are one and the same person.

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 11, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: In Exodus 34:28 it appears that Moses wrote the Ten Commandments on the tables of stone. Is this true?

ANSWER: Moses did not write the Ten Commandments on the tables of stone - God did.

Exodus 34:28 says, "So he [Moses] was there with the LORD forty days and forty nights, he neither ate bread nor drank water. And He wrote on the tables the words of the covenant, the Ten Commandments." It appears the "he wrote" could refer to Moses. The difficulty in understanding this account is purely grammatical.

From Deuteronomy 10 it can be absolutely proved that God wrote the Ten Commandments mentioned in Exodus 34:28. Deuteronomy 10:1-4 states: "At that time the LORD said to me, 'Hew for yourself two tablets of stone like the first, and come up to Me on the mountain and make yourself an ark of wood. And I will write on the tables the words that were on the first tablets, which you broke; and you shall put them in the ark.' So I made an ark of acacia wood, hewed two tablets of stone like the first, and went up the mountain, having the two tablets in my hand. And He [God] wrote on the tablets according to the first writing, the Ten Commandments, which the LORD had spoken to you in the mountain from the midst of the fire in the day of the assembly; and the LORD gave them to me."

Exodus 32:16 tells us the first tablets were also the work of God. "Now the tablets were the work of God, and the writing was the writing of God engraved on the tables." Additional proof is found in Exodus 31:16 "And when He [God] had made an end of speaking with him on Mount Sinai, He gave Moses two tablets of the Testimony, tablets of stone, written with the finger of God."

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 11, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: Where is the land of Nod? And why was Cain sent there?

ANSWER: Genesis 4:16 tells us: "Then Cain went out from the presence of the LORD and dwelt in the land of Nod on the east of Eden." The only information the Bible gives us is that the land of nod was east of Eden. The Hebrew word for Nod means "wandering." Part of the punishment Cain incurred for murdering his brother Able, was that of being a fugitive and a vagabond in a land apart from his kinsman. Genesis 4:11-12 states: "So now you are cursed from the earth, which has opened its mouth to receive your brother's blood from your hand. When you till the ground, it shall no longer yield its strength to you. A fugitive and a vagabond you shall be on the earth.'"

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 11, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: Does God approve of, or sanction, the practice of "polygamy"?

ANSWER: The first account of a polygamist marriage is found in Genesis 4:19 "Then Lamech took for himself two wives: the name of one was Adah, and the name of the second was Zillah."

God never approved or sanctioned the practice of polygamy. He did permit it in the law of Moses - just as He allowed divorce because of the harness of man's heart (Matthew 19:8). Nevertheless, according to the Bible, the ideal marital state is one husband and one wife who become one flesh in marriage for life. God gave Adam one wife (Genesis 2:24). Jesus also said that from the beginning it was God's will that a man leave his parents and cleave to his wife (not wives) and the two of them would become one flesh (Matthew 19:4-9).

New Testament Scripture also reveals that an elder (I Timothy 3:2; Titus 1:6) or deacon (I Timothy 3:12) is to set the right example and have only one wife.

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 11, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: Why did God reject Can's Offering?

ANSWER: Cain's sins separated him from God (Isaiah 59:2). His attitude and actions were not right with God. In Genesis 4:3-7 we read: "And in the process of time it came to pass that Cain brought an offering of the fruit of the ground to the LORD. Abel also brought of the firstlings of his flock and of their fat. And the LORD respected Abel and his offering, but He did not respect Cain and his offering. And Cain was very angry, and his countenance fell. So the LORD said to Cain, 'Why are you angry? And why has your countenance fallen? If you do well, will you not be accepted? And if you do not do well, sin lies at the door. And its desire is for you, but you should rule over it." Because Cain was in a rebellious state of mind, God would not have accepted his sacrifice even if he had offered an animal. Proverbs 15:8 states: "The sacrifice of the wicked is an abomination to the LORD, but the prayer of the upright is His delight."

Why was Abel's offering accepted and Cain's was not? Abel was a righteous man of faith (Hebrews 11:4). Cain, on the other hand, rejected God and His laws and lived an evil life. "Not as Cain who was of the wicked one and murdered his brother. And why did he murder him? Because his works were evil and his brother's righteous" (I John 3:12). God admonished Cain to overcome the sin that permeated his life. But Cain did not follow God's instruction, but chose to reject God and His laws, and eventually even murdered his own brother (Genesis 4:8).

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 11, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: Why was Canaan cursed for an act apparently committed by Ham (Genesis 9:24)?

ANSWER: The difficulty in understanding this account is purely grammatical.

We read about this account in Genesis 9:18-25: "Now the sons of Noah who went out from the ark were Shem, Ham, and Japheth. And Ham was the father of Canaan. These three were the sons of Noah, and from these the whole earth was populated. And Noah began to be a farmer, and he planted a vineyard. Then he drank of the wine and was drunk, and became uncovered in his tent. And Ham, the father of Canaan, saw the nakedness of this father, and told his two brothers outside. But Shem and Japheth took a garment, laid it on both their shoulders, and went backward and covered the nakedness of their father. Their faces were turned away, and they did not see their father's nakedness. So Noah awoke from his wine, and knew what his [Ham's] younger son [some Bible translations have "youngest son"] had done to him. Then he said: 'Cursed be Canaan; a servant of servants he shall be to his brethren.'"

Notice that Canaan is mentioned twice in the account. The pronoun "his" properly refers back to Ham, not Noah. Genesis 10:6 shows that Canaan was the "youngest son" of Ham: "The sons of Ham were Cush, Mizraim, Put, and Canaan." Canaan is mentioned last in time order of birth.

Canaan was not punished for a sin that Ham committed. He was punished for his own sin!

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 11, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: How do we explain the apparent contradiction between Genesis 32:30 and I John 4:12? Genesis 32:30 says, "Jacob saw God face to face," yet I John 4:12 states that "no man has seen God at any time?"

ANSWER: I John 4:12 states: "No one has seen God at any time. If we love one another, God abides in us, and His love has been perfected in us." The context of I John 4 shows that John was speaking of the Father (see verse 10). No man has seen the Father in person except Jesus Christ (John 1:18; John 5:37).

Therefore when Jacob explained: "...For I have seen God face to face, and my life is preserved," he could not have meant the Father. The One whom Jacob saw face to face - the One with whom he wrestled all night long - the One who blessed him and changed his name to "Israel" which means "prevailer with God" was that member of the God Family who became Jesus Christ. It was He that was "in the beginning..." with God, and "...was God" (John 1:1-3; John 1:14).

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 11, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: Matthew 27:9 - This is purported to be a prophecy from the book of Jeremiah. Yet it cannot be found in that book. How can this be explained?

ANSWER: Matthew 27:9-10 states: "Then was fulfilled what was spoken by Jeremiah the prophet, saying, 'And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the value of Him who was priced, whom they of the children of Israel priced, 'and gave them for the potter's field, as the LORD directed me.'"

Notice carefully that Jeremiah spoke these words. If he wrote them, they are not included in the book of Jeremiah.

I similar prophecy is found in the book of Zechariah (Zechariah 11:12-13). This has led some to believe that the word "Jeremiah" in Matthew 27:9 should be "Zechariah." In all authoritative texts, however, the original was "Jeremiah."

The simple explanation is that the prophecy was spoken by Jeremiah, not written. Zechariah, writing at a later time, was inspired to record it.

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 11, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: Purim - What is this festival? And, does God command us to celebrate it?

ANSWER: We read about the feast of Purim in Esther 9:18-32. Notice especially Esther 9:26-28 "So they called these days Purim, after the name Pur. Therefore, because of all the words of this letter, what they had seen concerning this matter, and what had happened to them, the Jews established and imposed it upon themselves and their descendants and all who should join them, that without fail they should celebrate these two days every year, according to the written instructions and according to the prescribed time, that these days should be remembered and kept throughout every generation, every family, every province, and every city, that these days of Purim should not fail to be observed among the Jews, and that the memory of them should not perish among their descendants."

This festival is one of the national feasts of the Jewish people. It commemorates the deliverance of the Jews from the Persian Empire during the fifth century B.C. This and similar festivals, such as the Feast of Lights (from the Maccabean period in the second century B.C.) are rich in meaning and history for the Jewish people. As a Jew, Jesus observed them.

However, these festivals are not part of God's annual Holy Days and Festivals (Leviticus 23), nor does God command us to observe them.

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 11, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: Who are "the seven Spirits of God sent out into all the earth" mentioned in Revelation 5:6?

ANSWER: Notice what God inspired to be written in - Revelation 5:6 "And I looked, and behold, in the midst of the throne and of the four living creatures, and in the midst of the elders, stood a Lamb as though it had been slain, having seven horns and seven eyes, which are the seven Spirits of God sent out into all the earth."

This verse describes these Spirits as being the "seven eyes" of the "Lamb." They are seven angelic beings who serve as the seven observers for Jesus Christ. In Revelation 1:4 we find that these seven angels have access to the very throne of God in heaven. Notice: "John, to the seven churches which are in Asia: Grace to you and peace from Him who is and who was and who is to come, and from the seven Spirits who are before His throne."

The function of these seven angels is described in II Chronicles 16:9 "For the eyes of the LORD run to and fro throughout the whole earth, to show Himself strong on behalf of those whose heart is loyal to Him..." This description of the seven Spirits is repeated in Zechariah 4:10 "For who has despised the day of small things: For these seven rejoice to see the plumb line in the hand of Zerubbabel. They are the eyes of the LORD, which scan to and fro throughout the whole earth."

These seven angels have a specific and important responsibility. They continually go throughout the entire earth to observe conditions and report them to Jesus Christ in heaven.

 
 
 
By: Sheldon Monson
Question & Answer

August 11, 2022

Question & Answer
QUESTION: Was Abraham a Jew?

ANSWER: The word "Jew" is a nickname for the Israelite tribe of Judah. The tribe of Judah descended from the man named Judah. This man was one of the twelve sons of the patriarch Jacob (Genesis 35:23).

Abraham was the father of Isaac (Genesis 21:3). Isaac was the father of Jacob (Genesis 25:26). Jacob was the father of Judah (Genesis 35:23). Judah the progenitor of the Jews, was a great-grandson of Abraham. Therefore, Abraham was not a Jew, but an ancestor of the Jews. Abraham is properly referred to as a Hebrew.

 
 
 

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